Hypothetically speaking if I a 18 year old man paid a 48 year old woman to have sex with me and I wear a condom and we both consented to it is that morally wrong or is it morally okay?
In my opinion I think it’s morally okay if a 18 year old man pays a 48 year old woman to have sex with him as long as they are both consenting to it. Because what they’re doing is completely harmless.
While older laws concerning statutory rape criminalize sex with children by way of the idea that they cannot consent to sex, modern laws concerning sexual abuse of children usually don’t reference the concept of consent. This allows for more severe penalties when there’s actually no consent, as the offender can also be charged with sexual assault.