This is a semantic question, but I want to get a feel for what you guys think.

          • rufus@discuss.tchncs.de
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            10 months ago

            Because the second paragraph of the article says it could not be established that anyone was speeding at all?

            • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
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              10 months ago

              what? youre talking about the joemygod(dot)com article?
              its pretty biased and if you read the pdf you can search for Zwonitzer: you can find tons of examples of biden bragging about having the classified material. So its pretty well-established that joe had the info and knew he had the info. so he broke the law.

              • Big P@feddit.uk
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                10 months ago

                So really the question should be “if you are alleged to have been speeding, but some people are reporting that there is no evidence that you were speeding and some others are saying that source is biased - did you break the law?”

                • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
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                  10 months ago

                  So youre suggesting that if someone says I wasn’t speeding we should disregard the audio tape of me bragging about speeding?

    • ctkatz@lemmy.ml
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      10 months ago

      driving the speed limit creates a driving hazard, so in that case safety trumps the law.

      • T0RB1T@lemmy.ca
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        10 months ago

        This is likely the most asinine thing I hear on a regular basis. Speed limits exist for a reason. If driving the speed limit actually created a hazard, rather than simply creating an annoyance for someone who is willing to drive recklessly to shave a few seconds off their trip, you might have a point, but you don’t.

        The only circumstance where it creates a hazard is if everyone else around them is speeding, in which case, the people who are speeding are creating the hazard, not the person following the laws, you know, the ones that are there to enforce safety on the roads.