• yetAnotherUser@discuss.tchncs.de
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    ·
    2 days ago

    Wasn’t English’s French influence mostly over by this point? The Norman conquest added a bunch of French vocabulary but by the 1700’s, England was a stable colonial power.

    And for very frequently used terms - like anatomical terms - the English root remained mostly intact and loanwords weren’t used. Arm, nose, shoulder, knee, elbow etc. are not French in origin.

    I suspect it could be remnant of nobility separating itself from the common people. By only ever referring to anything with its Latin term, you can distinguish the wealthy, highly-educated from the poorer, lesser-educated people. After all, if you spoke Latin and/or Greek those terms make a lot of intuitive sense.

    • porous_grey_matter@lemmy.ml
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      ·
      2 days ago

      French remained influential in the courts, higher education, and elite society long after it stopped being the “official” language. That last part is totally right.